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Saturday

"Praying in the Spirit" - Ian

Introduction


Frequently one will hear, in certain religious circles, a statement that is curiously suffixed with the words, "...in the spirit." The impression that the speaker wishes to convey, more or less, is that a spiritual state exists wherein it is possible for certain Christians (the so-called 'Spirit-Filled') to move beyond the carnal to the strictly spiritual level. Or, to put this another way, for such people to be involved in something that is truly spiritual, and is only possible for the truly spiritual.

Support for the Revivalist position that 'speaking in tongues' equals 'prayer in the Spirit', is drawn, principally, from two passages: (1) 1 Corinthians 14:13-16 [explicitly], and (2) Jude 19-20 [implicitly]. Of the two, the first is the most frequently presented:

Wherefore let him that speaketh in an unknown tongue pray that he may interpret. For if I pray in an unknown tongue, my spirit prayeth, but my understanding is unfruitful. What is it then? I will pray with the spirit, and I will pray with the understanding also: I will sing with the spirit, and I will sing with the understanding also. Else when thou shalt bless with the spirit, how shall he that occupieth the room of the unlearned say Amen at thy giving of thanks, seeing he understandeth not what thou sayest? 1 Corinthians 14:13-16 (KJV)

For the sake of comparison, the same passage is rendered in the New International Version (NIV) as:

For this reason anyone who speaks in a tongue should pray that he may interpret what he says. For if I pray in a tongue, my spirit prays, but my mind is unfruitful. So what shall I do? I will pray with my spirit, but I will also pray with my mind; I will sing with my spirit, but I will also sing with my mind. If you are praising God with your spirit, how can one who finds himself among those who do not understand say "Amen" to your thanksgiving, since he does not know what you are saying?

It is noteworthy that both translations make it quite plain that it is the person's spirit who is doing the praying when the 'unknown tongue' is operative, and not the Holy Spirit. However, the King James Version obscures this, if just a little, subsequent to the interrogative clause, by translating proseuchomai to pneumati as, "...I will pray with the spirit," where the New International Version supplies: "...I will pray with my spirit." The outcome that frequently results amongst Revivalists, whose preference is for the King James Bible over modern versions, is the (subconscious) apprehension that the passage is a direct reference to the Spirit of God praying through the individual in a ?heavenly' language. The question that few such people seem to grapple with, however, is this: can such a position be viewed as a valid interpretation in light of what the underlying Greek text actually states? The position that this short essay proposes, would answer the question with an unapologetic 'no'.

Allusions to Pentecost?

I would suggest the principle reason this misunderstanding occurs, has little more to do than with the appearance of the two English words 'tongues' and 'spirit' in such close proximity. When so read, the Revivalist immediately recalls the miraculous account recorded in the second chapter to the book of Acts, which also presents the same two English words in relatively close proximity. An instant mental/psychological association is made, due to a constantly reinforced Revivalist pre-understanding concerning 'tongues', and the die is cast. To the Revivalist, First Corinthians 14 and Acts 2 discusses precisely the same theme!

All of them were filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak in other tongues as the Spirit enabled them. Acts 2:4 (NIV)

It is when the two passages are compared, that the points of contact which, at first glance, seemed so obviously apparent, are found to be much less so. We discover, first of all, that the languages spoken by the Apostles at Pentecost were 'heterais', that is, "...of a different nature, form or kind{1}" to that which the men ordinarily spoke. We learn, a little later in the chapter, that these were also known, and comprehensible, human languages. It is then ascertained that the Apostles were not in control of the 'tongues' that they spoke, given that it was the Holy Spirit, and not their individual spirits, which 'enabled' their speech. The Greek verb that has been translated ?enabled' is edidou, which means both: "...to cause to happen, especially in reference to physical phenomena...[and] to bestow something{2}." The Holy Spirit, then, was the direct cause, as well as the agent, of the manifestation of languages evidenced on that day. None of this, however, was the case with the Corinthian believers. Paul states, without reservation, that it is the human spirit [pneuma mou, 'my spirit'], which causes and controls the (gift of) tongues to be uttered, and not the Holy Spirit. Paul also clearly states that such 'tongues' are completely unintelligible (vs. 9). Briefly:

1. Pentecost demonstrated the divinely ordered, divinely controlled, manifestation of miraculously imparted human languages, which were understood by others. At Corinth, by contrast, we note the utterance of divinely ordered, humanly controlled, non-human languages that were not understood by others{3}.

2. The 'manifestation of languages' at Pentecost was accompanied by several rather notable, and unavoidable, audio-visual signs. This is not the case with regards to the 'gift of tongues' at Corinth.

3. The 'manifestation of languages' at Pentecost was thoroughly corporate, whilst the 'gift of tongues' at Corinth was thoroughly individual.

Having established from chapter fourteen of First Corinthians, that prayer in tongues is prayer in/with the human spirit, how, then, should we understand the reference in Jude?

How that they told you there should be mockers in the last time, who should walk after their own ungodly lusts. These be they who separate themselves, sensual, having not the Spirit. But ye, beloved, building up yourselves on your most holy faith, praying in the Holy Ghost... Jude 18-20 (KJV)

Or, as the New International Version proposes:

They said to you, "In the last times there will be scoffers who will follow their own ungodly desires." These are the men who divide you, who follow mere natural instincts and do not have the Spirit. But you, dear friends, build yourselves up in your most holy faith and pray in the Holy Spirit.

Immediately we note several points. Initially, we comprehend that both the content of the passage, as well as the context, is significantly different to that which appears in the paragraph in the Corinthian account. Importantly, we also note that the New International Version adds an 'and' where the King James Version is lacking, thereby creating a disjunction between the person 'building him/herself up in his/her most holy faith' and he or she 'praying in the Holy Spirit.' This is significant. The reason this occurs is due to the NIV translators understanding 'pray' (a participle in the Greek, yet a transitive verb in English), and ?building up' (which is also a participle) as being attendant circumstance{4} to the imperative 'keep' in verse 21: "build yourselves up...pray." The KJV translators, by contrast, understood the participles as being instrumental{5}, that is, as the means by which the readers were to maintain themselves within the love of God. My own judgment favours the KJV at this point{6}.

Given all this, we read that believers are specifically instructed to increase themselves in their holy faith (in this instance 'faith' being a reference to the body of objective and established beliefs, rather than to one's subjective personal assurance) by praying in the Holy Spirit. The conceptual linkage between sound doctrinal understanding, and prayer in the Holy Spirit, therefore, cannot be avoided. This being so, just what does it mean to pray in the Holy Spirit?

As was alluded to previously, the Greek preposition en ('in') serves to qualify the nouns Pneumati and Hagio, as well as the participles proseuchomenoi ('to pray') and epoikodoumontes ('to build up'); and so expresses a distinctively Christian concept. It has been established by grammarians that no non-Christian Greek writer in history had ever referred to someone as being 'in' another person, yet this is precisely how the early Greek Christians understood their spiritual condition. The uniquely Christian sense, then, should be recognized as being figurative, denoting the sphere within which an action occurs, or the element or reality in which something is contained or consists. Put more simply, just as one can be "...raised in the Lord," so too can one "...pray in the Holy Spirit," or have one's conscience confirmed "...in the Holy Spirit{7}," or describe the Kingdom of God as being "...in the Holy Spirit{8}," or even go so far as commending oneself "...in purity, patience and kindness, in the Holy Spirit{9}." Given that the grammatical constructs are precisely the same in all these examples, and given that no Revivalist would ever go so far as to state that the above examples somehow refers to 'tongues', why do Revivalists insist that Jude 20 should be taken as the one exception that proves the rule? They do so because their presuppositions, biases and pre-understandings would not allow them to perceive the passage in any other light.

Conclusion

To pray in the Holy Spirit is to pray in communion and relationship with the Holy Spirit. It is to put on the mind of Christ, thereby aligning one's prayer with, and opening oneself to, the will and leading of the Spirit of God. As such, this remains the one form of prayer that is only possible for those who are in close fellowship with the Spirit, through the Person of Jesus Christ.

When a Spirit-gifted person exercises his or her endowment, and prays in 'tongues', according to the Apostle Paul it is the person's human spirit that is operative. The circumstances as they existed at Corinth also demonstrates, very clearly, that such prayer need not be in accordance with the will of the Holy Spirit at all, or be functioning by people who have put on the mind of Christ. Paul's stinging rebuke to the wayward believers soundly demonstrates that, in the case of certain of the Corinthians at least, such prayer was carnal, through and through. This is a factor that every Revivalist needs to consider, given the undue focus and attention that 'tongues' receives in Revivalist fellowships.

According to Scripture, then, prayer in the (Holy) Spirit is not the same as prayer in 'tongues', and, further, not all prayer in 'tongues' is truly spiritual.

[1] J.H. Thayer, Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament, HUP, 1886, s.v. eteroV
[2] F.W. Danker, A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, 3rd ed., UCP, 2000, s.v. didwmi
[3] The reference to the "...tongues of men and angels..." in 13:1 should not be assumed to be Paul's position concerning the nature of the gift of tongues. The passage literally ?drips' of rhetorical irony in Greek, and so simply presents Paul's understanding with regards to what the carnal Corinthians were claiming for themselves
[4] A function of participles, it refers to an action that is somewhat independent of the main action of a sentence
[5] Denotes agency, means or cause
[6] Instances such as this one reinforces the need for Christian teachers to be competent in the use of the biblical languages, if for no other reason than to make responsible exegetical decisions
[7] See Romans 9:1
[8] See Romans 14:7
[9] See 2 Corinthians 6:6

Thoughts on Tongues - by Ian

Hey, all. 


It would be a gross understatement to suggest that the Revivalist groups have completely misunderstood the biblical teaching on 'tongues'. What I aim to do in this brief post is demonstrate why the above statement is true, in the hope that the people who continue to struggle with the effects of Revivalist teaching on 'tongues' might actually be able to put the subject into its proper context, and so enjoy a measure of peace. Importantly, I've no intention of addressing the supposed validity or otherwise of modern 'tongues' as found in either Revivalist or Pentecostal circles. My goal will simply be the summarising of the scriptural witness, rather than attempting any sort of defence for the modern expression. And, of course, I've written from the perspective that it's the Bible that should inform the Christian's belief insofar as this topic is concerned. 

I'll begin by listings several positive and negative statements that will inform this post, commencing with the positive. First, that there is such a thing as 'speaking in tongues', and that it is presented in Scripture as being wholly miraculous in origin (rather than the wholly learned behaviour which is frequently the case nowadays). Second, that the Bible presents two distinct sets of spiritual phenomena haphazardly translated as 'tongues' in the English New Testament (NT). Third, the Bible further indicates that the second set of phenomena, the 'unknown tongue' referred to in 1 Corinthians, is a specific 'spiritual gift' that is available to some Christians throughout the Church Age. 

Insofar as the negative statements are concerned, I'll begin by suggesting that that 'tongues', in either form, is not the same as the 'gift' of the Holy Spirit that Scripture describes. Second, that according to Paul, an overemphasis on the supposed benefits of the spiritual gift of 'tongues' is a sure sign of religious immaturity, human sinfulness and misplaced pride/arrogance. Third, that being able to speak/pray in 'tongues' is not a sure indication that one is saved. Finally, fourth, that 'tongues' is not presented in Scripture as being a supernatural aid to preaching, as being somehow intended for use in a polylingual cultural environment or context. 

But first a caveat: I teach biblical Greek. When making my assessments below, I consider closely what the New Testament as originally written (in Greek) says, and then according to the rules of koine Greek grammar and syntax. If anyone wishes to disagree with my conclusions, then such a one will need to be able to marshal a rebuttal that demonstrates that I've erred in my understanding of the language. Simply saying, 'nope', because of a philosophical disagreement with where my conclusions lead, just won't cut it. Sorry, but uninformed speculation isn't worth as much as is an informed opinion, and when it comes to this subject not all opinions are created equal. 

Those who have more than simply a casual interest can locate more detailed discussions in the various articles on the subject that appear at 'PleaseConsider' (www.pleaseconsider.info), as well as the essay that I wrote on Mark 16, and which is located elsewhere on this forum.

The first record in the NT of 'tongues' as a miraculous reality occurs in Mark 16:17, where it's referred to as one of five'signs' that would demonstrate the uniqueness of the Christian community over and against every other socio-religious community. Grammatically, the list of 'signs' that Mark recorded conforms to an indicative sub-set known as categorical/generalising plurals, that is, whilst they are generic in usage, they serve to describe a distinct category of 'things', over and against every other category of 'things'. 

Next, it's important to note that this listing of categorical/generalising plurals is found in a sequence of conditional clauses (i.e. "... the one who ... and is ... will be...""... these signs will ... those who ... they will ... if they ...", etc). Grammatically, this indicates that the listed 'signs' are intended to be taken as predictions rather than as promises. Further, they are presented as a 'set' or 'class', which means that none of the five 'signs' in Mark 16:17 is a promise made by God to an individual believer. According to the canons of Greek grammar, categorical/generalising plurals, when used conditionally, demonstrate the predictive action of something (in our case, God) creating an effect within a sub-set or unique class of reality (in our case, his being at work within the Christian Church corporately). 

We next encounter 'tongues' in the following chapters of Acts: two (twice: vv. 4 and 11), ten (v. 46) and nineteen (v. 6). The actual Greek word used in each of these occurrences is glossais, which is the dative, feminine, plural form of the noun for 'tongue' (and is also the form of the word that's found in Mark 16:17). This impresses that Luke (like Mark) intended for us to understand that real languages were being spoken during each of these events. In the first instance (revolving around Pentecost), following the flow of the conversation that Jesus had with his eleven closest surviving disciples prior to his ascension (read 1:2-11 and 1:21-26), we discover that the promise of a specific empowering of the Holy Spirit would fall upon the small band of apostles only. This is what is recorded in chapter two. 

In the second instance (chapter ten), the same phenomena occurs with respect to the first fully gentile believers. In the final instance (chapter nineteen), Paul imparts the Holy Spirit to a group of John the Baptist's former disciples. So what the three events have in common is this: (1) the Holy Spirit overshadowed three distinct groups of people collectively (i.e. none of these accounts records individuals), (2) that the three groups of people spoke in real languages (again, collectively). And finally, (3) that each of these three 'Acts' occurrences fulfills the predictive 'sign' that was indicated in Mark 16:17. 

Moving on to briefly consider 1 Corinthians chapters twelve through fourteen, where we encounter the longest NT discourse on the subject of 'tongues'. Paul introduces and briefly touches on the topic in chapter twelve (thrice: vv. 10, 28 and 30), where he positively lists 'tongues' among a broader number of nine 'manifestations' that are given by the Holy Spirit to individuals, and then for the benefit of the Church collectively. Paul uses the inflected form, glosson, the genitive, feminine, plural form of the noun for 'tongue'. The use of this inflection might indicate that the 'language' that results is rather 'unique', but it certainly does indicate a clear distinction between the real languages recorded by Mark, and by Luke in the three passages of Acts; and what Paul is now discussing in chapter twelve of his first letter to the church at Corinth. Had Paul had in mind what Mark and Luke had in mind, then he would've used the same (common) form of the word, instead of opting for a particularly uncommon form. 

In chapter thirteen, Paul distinguishes between human speech forms, and the implied 'angelic' speech form which 'tongues' apparently represents (see v. 1). He does this by using the standard term for human language, the one found in both the Gospel According to Mark, and in the Acts accounts. Having made the distinction, it was natural for him to apply the standard inflection in this instance. However, in chapter fourteen, the predominant form of the Greek word for 'tongue' that's used is glosse, the dative, feminine, singular inflection. That Paul used a singular form of the standard word for human language, again, wasn't particularly strange, as it served to indicate that Paul fully acceptedthat the gift of 'tongues' imparted by the Holy Spirit to some believers, represented a true and legitimate form of communication, albeit one directed towards God alone. 

So, in summary, the witness is clear. Miraculous 'tongues' are a reality, or at least they are when considered from a biblical perspective. The scriptural record also clearly indicates two separate and distinct forms: (1) an authentic miracle of human languages: a form which was limited in scope, and is only recorded as having been spoken by groups of people collectively. This form was further unique in that it was intended to authenticate a new work of God, and it resulted from the direct overshadowing of the Holy Spirit (as is recorded thrice in Acts). This extraordinary 'miracle of languages' is to be distinguished from, (2) the more common yet still authentic manifestation of potentially non-human/angelic speech. 

This, the second type of 'tongues' was spoken by a number of individuals within the church at Corinth, and then only when such individuals had been given the specific gift by the Holy Spirit. And, of course, not only was the Corinthian form of 'unknown tongues' different to the 'known languages' described in Acts, so too was the function: the purpose of the Corinthian type is expressly stated as being for thebuilding up of the church for the common good (see 1 Corinthians 12:7, and 14:26).

Revivalists invariably quote Acts 2:38 as a supposed proof text that 'tongues' somehow equates with being the gift of the Holy Spirit. This is shown to be nonsense when one approaches the passage in Greek. The relevant clause in verse thirty-eight is ten dorean tou hagiou pneumatos, which in English is properly translated,"...the gift, the Holy Spirit." The reason for this is, "... the Holy Spirit" is grammatically a genitive of apposition in Greek, in other words, the 'gift' that is being referred to in the clause is the Holy Spirit himself.

Nowhere in Acts chapter two do we find the miracle of human languages referred to as being a gift; further, it ceases to be the subject of the discussion after Acts 2:13! In 1 Corinthians 12:1, Paul doesn't use any Greek word for 'gift' when he lists nine spiritual manifestations. What he does apply is a specific term that means, "... that which is graciously bestowed". In other words, 'tongues' is properly the bestowal of a measure of spiritual grace, and not specifically a 'gift', per se. 

Now before anyone accuses me of semantic wrangling, it's important to understand that it doesn't really matter. From verse seven onwards we discover that the various 'gifts' being discussed can'tbe viewed as being synonamous with the Holy Spirit himself (in other words, the gift(s)aren't the Holy Spirit given, as we find to be the case in Acts 2:38), but specific 'gifts' that the Holy Spirit givesto others. In Corinthians, the Holy Spirit is the Giver, rather than the gift given. This is further supported by the fact that in 14:14, Paul very specifically states that when he prays in 'tongues', it's his human spirit that's doing the praying, not the Holy Spirit. 

A singular purpose behind Paul writing 1 Corinthians chapters twelve through fourteen was his attempt to qualify the unhealthy level of attention that certain of the Corinthian believers held with respect to the gift of 'tongues'. He begins immediately by advising them that there are diversities of spiritual gifts, but that in spite of this, they all stem from the one Spirit (12:4-7). Verses twelve through thirty-one seeks to explain that there is unity within this diversity with respect to the various manifestations of the Spirit, and he does this by drawing an analogy between the church and a human body (where 'eyes' aren't 'ears', etc). 

In verse twenty-seven the word translated 'you' into English is a Greek plural, which shows that the church is the body of Christ collectively, with the individual believers comprising the various functions of that body (i.e. 'eyes', 'ears', 'mouths', etc). Chapter thirteen reinforces that any exercising of a 'gift' must be underpinned by love rather than by pride. Chapter fourteen constitutes the 'slap' on the wrist. 

Now, with respect to the mistaken view that ifone can speak in 'tongues', one can be confident that one is 'saved'; we must acknowledge that the Bible nowhere teaches this position. In point of fact, no overt, outward spiritual manifestation is provided by Scripture as a form of concrete proof that someone is in a right standing with God. Jesus speaks of such misplaced confidence (read 'self-deception') in Matthew 7:21-23. In spite of the fact that some people will claim kinship with Christ based on the ability to perform powerful, supernatural deeds (e.g. prophesying in Jesus' name, casting out demons in Jesus' name, working miracles in Jesus' name); Jesus will turn to some and say,"...away from me you evildoers, I NEVER knew you". Tough, huh? The fact is, Scripture repeatedly lets us know that both the 'saved' and the 'unsaved' will be identifiable by the 'fruit' that is displayed in their lives (see Matthew 7:15-20, cf. Galatians 5:19-24 and Ephesians 5:9). 

Finally, with respect to the mistaken view that biblical 'tongues' was intended to provide an ability to preach in a polylingual cultural millieu; well, this view doesn't fit what we read in Scripture either. Let's begin by considering the miracle of human languages that the twelve apostles spoke on the Day of Pentecost first. To start with, the languages were only one 'sign' among several that God chose to demonstrate on that day (the powerful sound of a rushing wind, the wind visibly turning into something that appeared like sheets of flame, etc). So it's a pretty shaky piece of ground on which to pitch one's doctrinal tent, should one start selecting one 'sign' as being the most important whilst rejecting the others. 

Further, the languages that were spoken by the apostles on that day were representative o fthe geographical regions encapsulating the Jewish dispersion, in other words, the aim that day was strictly at Jews rather than at people more generally. Finally, when it came time to actually preach, Peter used the one language common and understood by everyone from Africa to Asia, Palestine to Europe: Greek! Nope, 'tongues' didn't equal 'language for preaching purposes' in Acts two (or Acts ten and Acts nineteen for that matter)! When we consider the 'unknown tongue' of 1 Corinthians 12:10, we find Paul listing the supernatural ability to speak in 'tongues' with the equally supernatural ability to 'interpret' said 'tongues'. Nothing is said of the purpose of these joint gifts until later, in chapter fourteen. There, beginning with verse six we find the context indicates that the 'tongue' gift is incomprehensible to both speaker and hearers. Further, in verse nineteen Paul specifically says that he would rather speak a few words in a language understood to all, then a myriad of words in a 'language' that only God understands. This, of course, is in keeping with his teaching that 'spiritual gifts' are for the building up of the Church! Paul isn't providing instruction on evangelism in 1 Corinthians, his focus isn't on those outside the church, but on those within it. 

To close, there is nothing in Revivalist dogma, experience or practice that in any way is supported by what we read in the various accounts in Acts. These describe the miracle of human languages. Consider Acts 2 as the common test case: (1) the 'tongues' spoken at Pentecost were actual, understood human languages. (2) They were one of several miraculous phenomena that occurred in close order. (3) They were spoken by the twelve apostles only. (4) They were spoken by the twelve apostles (i.e. by arepresentative groupof people) simultaneously. (5) No-one was 'seeking' for this 'experience', and certainly not to validate their relationship with Christ! In other words, what happened at Pentecost was different in formfunctionpurposeextent and nature to what individual Revivalists might like to claim for themselves with respect to their supposed 'salvation' experiences. 

From the standpoint of Scripture, the single phenonmenon of 'tongues' that Revivalists might be able to claim affinity with, is the type referred to in 1 Corinthians as the 'unknown tongue'. And, of course, this particular manifestation isn't the 'gift' that is referred to in Acts 2:38! 

In short, Revivalists are expert at reading into the Bible what they hope to find; but are rank amateurs when it comes to reading out of Scripture what's actually there. What they preach about 'tongues' is wrong. They can neither build, support nor sustain a case for their beliefs from what Scripture actually says! If anyone is interested, I'd be happy to take this to the next level, and describe (again from Scripture) why the 'unknown tongue' isn't a gift given to all believers, and further, why it's the least importantof all God's gifts. But that will be for a later time. 

God bless,

Ian

Speaking in Tongues with Tom Tilley

 

"I Don't Sin" An examination of 1 John and sin By Drew Dixon

The following article is based on talks given by prominent RCI leadership a number of years ago. Due to the authority of those that preached this message, one may see it as one of those unofficially 'official' doctrines that significantly impacts peoples lives. At present I am unaware if the current prevailing thought on this topic has, or is, changing within the RCI.  

"I Don't Sin"

An examination of 1 John and sin

By Drew Dixon

The above statement, made by several notable pastors within the RCI oversight, has proven to be one of the more damaging of all the claims presented to the people. It has resulted in a large number of Revivalists experiencing considerable condemnation, and has led to them questioning principle aspects of their personal experiences with God. Pastor Lloyd Longfield has been very direct in his affirming that he does not (present tense) sin. Indeed, it is sometimes preached "he that is born of God DOES NOT commit sin".

This aspect of RCI thought came under heavy criticism during the time of the morals split in 1995. During this period, other RCI oversight members dug-in, and openly affirmed their 'sinlessness' as well. A natural, and understandable outcome being, that many average RCI members may have simply denied their own sinfulness, so as to conform to the view maintained by the oversight. Some may have felt the pressing need to conform, as they often hear preached, "the church is NOT for sinners but saints". This concept is also linked to the generally held RCI understanding that if you don't have it together you will "miss the bus". In short, the RCI has been preaching a form of 'perfectionism'.

It must be accepted that should any individual wish to maintain that he or she does not sin, then they are free to do so. However, ultimately they will be called upon to give account to God. Unfortunately, one of the significant impacts this statement makes when declared from the platform, is that it is accompanied by a reinterpretation of Scripture in an effort to suit a personal belief and conviction. In doing this, the claimants convince their own people that there is no room for a Christian to sin. This essentially closes the door on one of the underpinning or foundational Christian principles, even, dare I say it, preventing both the flock (and perhaps themselves) from truly "walking in the light".

It would be unrealistic to assume that all oversight members within the RCI outrightly deny sin in their lives, but many seem to experience considerable difficulty in preaching concerning it, or of candidly admitting that saints do sin and will continue to do so until the parousia (the return of Christ). I personally cannot recall a single talk, which openly spoke of sin and the forgiveness of sins committed after conversion, and this taking place over a ten year period.


Shortly after the 1995 morals spilt, a talk was presented in the Brisbane assembly, the intent being the explaining of the First Epistle of John so that it conformed to the RCI 'I don't sin' concept. This was undertaken due to a number of people viewing First John as contradicting the RCI's position at the time.


The RCI explanation

1 John 1:6-10
If we say that we have fellowship with him, and walk in darkness, we lie, and do not the truth: But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship one with another, and the blood of Jesus Christ his Son cleanseth us from all sin. If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.  If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us.

This passage seems to be directly contradicting the RCI belief that a Christian is without sin.


In the talk, it is claimed that the first two chapters of John were the first division, while the next three were the second. The first two chapters therefore, dealt with our state before salvation, the second three dealt with our position post salvation. This then reconciled the above scriptures to the RCI position claimed by some that, "I don't sin". The argument follows that before salvation we had to confess our sins and we were forgiven. After salvation we are not sinners, and essentially do not sin, thus affirming the RCI's difficulty with the open admission, confession and repentance from sin post conversion. In reviewing a range of Pastor Lloyd's recorded messages, it is plain that he too holds to the belief that the early verses in First John are pre-salvation in their focus.


From the tapes that both myself and Ian have listened to, the following reasons are offered in support of this 'two-stage' belief:


1 John 1:5 starts off with "This is the message". This is explained as the message that was preached to us at the beginning, and which enabled us to come to the Lord. The message is that we were sinners and could be forgiven our sin. The next series of verses are, therefore, held to be pre-salvation, notably verses 8,9,10.


It is then maintained that from chapter three onwards, the subject presents a Christian's post salvation situation. 1 John 3:2 reads "Beloved NOW are we the sons of God". We should, according to this view, view chapter 3 and verses 6-9 as fitting our current Christian situation. The pastor concerned highlighted the fact that John stated: "NOW are we the sons of God" and that the phrase appears in the present tense. Whilst the expression is in the 'perfect-aspect' (indicating that the results are ongoing into the future), it is unlikely that the pastor in question would find most of the points that we raise further in this essay to be agreeable with his own understanding of what it is that John sought to present.


The upshot of the RCI position is that the forgiveness of sins committed after salvation remains a very very cloudy issue for many within the RCI. Indeed with the very brief mention of sin that the pastor makes, (with respect to 1 John 5:16) he says:


"...what if we find ourselves in that unpleasant situation of having contravened."


Now precisely how this could happen is not fully developed, seeing the speaker had already stated that "...he that is born of God cannot sin(?)". Ultimately, should this occur, then the failing Christian abrogates all of his or her rights, has nothing left to stand upon, and, just 'maybe' there is some way in which he or she can be restored. However, as the pastor made plain, there are no guarantees. It would prove enlightening to see precisely how the pastor defines sin, besides the all encompassing "transgression of the law" that he referred to.

 

Background


Many view First John as being written against a background of 'gnostic' attitudes that were being touted by certain individuals within the Church (the RCI talk also makes appeal to the same background context). Of course we would not wish to appear dogmatic about these things as Gnosticism, as a structured belief system, was never a perfectly definable movement within early Christianity. What is referred to by scholars as proto-gnosticism seems to have been developing within the Christian Church during the time in which John wrote his letters. This was, basically, an amalgam of Greek philosophical speculation, Jewish mysticism, and Christian theology, and took many forms. For this reason, a single summary of 'gnostic' beliefs would not be achievable. However, if we review the difficulties that John addresses, as well as considering some of the general historical background relating to these groups (of which there is quite a bit in the early church writings), we can glean a workable overview of the situation experienced by the Apostle in Asia Minor as follows:

First John seems to have been written in response to false teachers, those who had left the fellowship previously, and were attempting to seduce the faithful into joining with them. These teaches comprised a group who believed they had superior knowledge to ordinary Christians, and seemed to show remarkably little love toward the latter. They were probably early followers of the heretic Cerinthus, a former Christian teacher, and arch-adversary of the Apostle John at Ephesus. Cerinthian teaching became one stream which fed into the river referred to in the late 2nd century by the 'catch-all' of Gnosticism - the principle of knowledge. Through this 'knowledge', or so they believed, was salvation achieved. Commentators speak of the "Gnostic" focus as not only being towards the acquisition of a special 'gnosis' (knowledge), but also on the possession of a divine spark ('pneuma'/spirit). Irenaeus, an early Church leader, and the writer of one of the first Christian books to address heresies within the Christian Church, makes mention of a link between John and Cerinthus. Some of the "Christian" strands of this Gnostic thinking claimed that sinlessness was attainable through a pure knowledge of God, that indeed sin was a result of the want for this knowledge. When a person attained this 'gnosis', he or she ceased to sin. The second century heretic, Valentinus, developed this theme even further, and was the second major 'stream' feeding the Gnostic 'river' which threatened to overwhelm or 'flood' the early Church.

 

As has already been mentioned, the RCI talk delivered in Brisbane highlights this gnostic background. But in doing so, the speaker errs by claiming that the Gnostic thinking of the time was that no-one really sinned, even the unredeemed. So the message on sin (1 John 1) was intended as a corrective to the misunderstanding of 'sin' as it relates to the unredeemed/pre-salvation state of man only. It was they who were the ones that needed forgiveness of sins (not post salvation man). However, nascent 'gnostic-Christianity' did not teach this at all. Quite to the contrary, gnostic thought was that unredeemed mankind generally wallowed in sin. It was only the enlightened, with their 'special knowledge', who were sinless. Therefore, First John seeks to address the issue of sin as it relates to the believer. It is difficult to see why John would have to attempt to convince 'Christians' of the sinful state of mankind, given that in order for one to become a Christian in the first place, one really needs to be able acknowledge their own sinful state and their personal need for the redemption that is available in Christ.


This is a very broad subject, and one that is worthwhile finding the time to engage in detailed reading upon.

 

Grammar and Text


The RCI talk emphasises the "present tense" nature of 1 John 3:2 in their defence of the supposed pre to post sin position. In view of this, we believe it proper to briefly commit some time to exegetically explaining the texts in light of the rules of Greek grammar. For further detail on some grammatical aspects, please consult the notes at the end, or the two essays on grammar that appear elsewhere at this website.1


1 John 6 & 7

In 1 John 1:6 we read "If we say that we have fellowship with him, and walk in darkness, we lie, and do not the truth:"

The Greek aspectual construction underlying this passage is conjugated, and referred to, as being 'present, indicative, active'. This identifies that the nature of the verbal action is in operation at the time the speaker (John) is making the statement (of course only for those that walk in darkness). This continuous 'present/current state' is easily confirmed if we now look at verse 7. There, John refers to "...walking in the light as he is in the light", if we do this then the outcome is that we "...have fellowship one with another". The same construction is used ( the 'present, indicative, active') when John speaks of "...having fellowship one with another". We can see that from both the aspect of the verbal action, and the context of the verse, that John is speaking about his own present reality (fellowship one with another), a reality that is brought about by the nature of the underlying action (that is, "...walking in the light"). It is obvious that verse 7 cannot possibly refer to the state that existed prior to salvation, as no one can "...walk in the light..." whilst they yet remain in the pre-saved state of darkness. One must be born again in order to even comprehend the light.

 

1 John 8 & 9

As can be readily viewed, John uses verse 6 & 7 in tandem, as a 'couplet', if you will. He presents the negative 'action' in verse 6 (walking in darkness), and what results (that we lie and do not the truth). He then counters this with the positive 'action' in verse 7 (walking in the light), noting the positive results of this (having fellowship one with another...). Turning our attention to verse 8 & 9 we can see the same use of dualism. In verse 8 John presents the negative 'action' (saying we have no sin), and its meaning (self deception and lack of truth). He then counters in verse 9 with the positive 'action' (confession of sins), and its results (forgiveness and cleansing from all unrighteousness).


John is clearly, and intentionally, encouraging his readers to take hold of the positive aspects of these verses, given that these 'positives' can only be claimed by the Christian.


As verse 6 & 7 do not, but more importantly, cannot refer to a pre-salvation time, neither does verses 8 & 9. In verse 8, when John says "...If we say that we have no sin...", the grammatical construction is the same as the RCI's quoted 'presence tense' of 1 John 3:2. More specifically, it is the 'present, indicative, active'not a past state, but a current ongoing reality. John uses is the 'first-person, plural' voice, indicating that he is including himself with those to whom he is writing, and that he is discussing a current reality.

 

Confess


In verse 9, it is also important to realise the structure underpinning the word 'confess'. Some in the RCI would have us (and their people) believe this is referring to the initial point of conversion, and not to an ongoing matter within the Christian's life and walk. Grammatically, we note the aspect being the 'present, subjunctive, active'. This, therefore, is not a 'once-off' or a limited confession, but one that is repeated and ongoing.


It may seem strange to many, but while in the RCI I don't think I ever really confessed my sin before the Lord (except for my entrance). I, like others, believed I did not sin, and, therefore, had no need for confession. Obviously I now understand that my view and comprehension of sin was distorted. Looking a little closer now at John, it would seem that this ongoing confession of sin is an important (dare I say integral) part of how John was instructing the church to "...walk in the light". In its context, one may even see it as part of the 'commandments' that John speaks of (1 John 2:3, 4, 5).


In summary, all the above verses, when speaking of the statements or declarations being made, are written in the 'present, indicative/present, subjunctive' aspect, and so represent continuous ongoing actions. The 'present, indicative' demonstrates the action was contemporary with the time of writing, and so was relevant to the authors current situation. It was not, therefore, something that was relegated to the past.


The message of 1 John 1:8 is particularly important for any who wish to maintain their 'sinless' state.


It is also important to keep in mind that the grammatical structure of the verses above is not discussing the nature of the actual 'sin', but rather our attitude, understanding, recognition, and the ongoing reality of sin in our lives. John is showing us how to deal with it, not how to pretend it isn't there.

 

1 John 2:1 & 2


As mentioned above, it would seem that John is showing us how to deal with current sin, and not with our state before we were redeemed. This is even more evident in chapter 2:1 & 2 (remembering that there are no chapter divisions in the original, chapter 2 is a straight flow on from chapter 1). Regarding the issue of 'case' and 'person', John openly identifies himself as party to the statements that he makes. John is speaking of himself in 1 John 2:1-2, where he claims Jesus Christ as his current and ongoing Advocate before the Father for him, and not just for him only (this current ongoing action is supported by the text). In this verse, when John refers to 'our sins', he is speaking in the 'first person, plural' (again, this indicates he is referring both to himself and to those whom he is writing), it is also given in the 'genitive case' (demonstrating possession). Verse 1 makes it very clear that the sin John is addressing is not some past sin, but the sin of a believer (any believer). Verse 2 then addresses how our current sins continue to be dealt with. To try and present these verses any other way, robs both the gospel and the death of Christ of it's substance and significance.

 

Other points of conflict with 'pre-salvation' context

  • The first two chapters of 1 John provide a number of practical ways of assessing the reality and strength of the individual's relationship with God. This would seem to be a fairly moot point relating to people 'pre-salvation', with a number of the examples simply being inapplicable to people 'pre-salvation' in any case.

  • Finally, in 1 John 1:3-4, John states that he is writing these things so that we may have fellowship now, with the Father and with Jesus, and so our joy may be full (in the present). The way of achieving this fellowship and joy is then directly addressed in the verses that follow. This fact goes some way to explaining the lack of joy that certain individuals sometimes experience.

It is far more scriptural (and sensible), to see that John is writing to Christians, in order to warn them about the dangers of seeing themselves as being 'without sin'. He then gives them the 'commandments' they require in order to deal with personal sin as it arises in their lives. To maintain balance, John points out the very real and serious dangers of sin in these verses as well.

 

A conflict in sin?

The following scriptures may raise some 'apparent' conflicts with the above explanations for some.


1 John 3:6
Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not: whosoever sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him.

1 John 3:9
Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.

1 John 5:18
We know that whosoever is born of God sinneth not; but he that is begotten of God keepeth himself, and that wicked one toucheth him not.


The above passages would seem to indicate we do not sin and cannot sin if truly born of God. These are the basis for that sometimes preached and maintained stand by some within the RCI.


These apparently conflicting comments regarding sin can be easily resolved when the underlying Greek text is consulted. In 1 John 3:6, 9 and 1 John 5:18, the aspect concerning such 'sin' is representative of a continuous repeated action in the present context ('present, indicative, active'), hence the words 'sinneth, committeth sin and sinneth' are used. In 1 John 1, as already discussed, John is addressing the fact that sin still abides in us. He is not, as the RCI believes, addressing the nature of the sin (the grammar of text supports this as John uses the noun for sin). When he does address the 'act' of the sin in 1 John 2:1 (the verb, 'sin not' and 'any man sin'), it denotes the idea of sin as a single action ('aorist, subjunctive, active') rather than that reflecting a continual, habitual type situation (as in chapter 3). When referring to the aorist aspect, it is important to appreciate that English does not have a verbal structure of this sort. However, in the Koine Greek it relates to a completed action, albeit of a simple and undefined sort, as opposed to a continuous or repeated action.


What we understand from this, is that it is the nature of the individual that has changed, but that the individual remains capable of continuing to sin. The general thrust is along the lines that there will be cases of sin in a believer's life, but a believer's life will not be characterised by sin as a lifestyle. The true believer does not habitually and deliberately sin.


For the Christian, 1 John 1:5-10 provides the key to keeping personal sin under control (and not under 'wraps'). To ignore this as a current reality, is to walk a very dangerous line. John shows us how to keep the sin from becoming a habitual one, given that sin, whether of the mind or the body, is condemned by Scripture (1 John 1:10 does not describe 'ongoing habitual sin').


Convincing oneself that one doesn't sin, thereby expecting 'perfection', places one a very perilously position. Instead of acknowledging the existence of sin, and so dealing with it in the manner 1 John prescribes, an individual, with no obvious recourse for forgiveness, is likely to trivialise or redefine their personal understanding of what sin 'is' (especially the sin they are subject to), and then convince him/herself that it does not exist.


We offer that this may be the case for more than one of those RCI pastors who have publicly stated: "...I do not sin!"


John's statement in 1 John 3:8-10, and other places, makes it difficult to see how someone truly born of God could habitually remain in the unrepentant sin state these verse's describe. Sadly, however, there are many people who 'speak in tongues', and yet who fit the categories mentioned throughout this book. Indeed some have even moved to the point of denying the very Christ they once 'professed'. According to John, by his definitions, 'tongues' of themselves mean nothing if the fruit that he speaks of is not present. If one 'speaks in tongues', but the works of the flesh are habitually and unrepentantly manifested in the persons life, then there would be grounds for serious doubt that such a person was every really born again. Biblically, 'tongues' are no sure proof of regeneration. They are, at best, simply a tentative indication, and one that would require the further confirmation of the existence of spiritual fruit of righteousness that Scripture records is the one witness to the true believer (this definition of a sign as simply an indication also seems to fit the general biblical usage).

Scripture makes it quite clear that saints are simply redeemed (apolytrosis) sinners. The 'holiness' aspect that we possess is imputed righteousness, and relates to our new spiritual condition and standing before God. It is not an absence of (ongoing) sin. I think this is one area where some people can take God's 'imputed' righteousness, which is granted to us through Christ, and confuse it with their own perceived 'intrinsic' self-righteousness, which they determine and judge as theirs by their adherence to the 'law'. Hence the focus towards exhaustive rules and regulations in some of these Revivalist groups. If people don't cross the line, then they think they don't sin, and so they can feel justified in judging themselves to be righteousness. 


1 John 3:2

As already mentioned, the RCI talk points to two distinctives in attempting to separate the first two chapters in 1 John from the second three.

  • They offer that the statement of the 'message' in 1 John 1:5 is referring to the message to bring us to God.

  • Conversely, they offer that the statement in 1 John 3:2, when John says beloved 'now' is referring to one's 'post-saved' state, in contradistinction to one's 'pre-saved' state.

With regard to the first point, we believe this issue has been sufficiently addressed in the earlier part of this essay. We would also stress that the RCI explanation of John dealing with a 'pre-saved' attitude is somewhat odd. The letters of John were written to Christians, people who must have, at some point in the past, had an understanding and reality of sin in their life. If this was not so, then they would not now be Christians. This is particularly relevant from an RCI perspective, for if they had not truly 'repented', then they would never have 'spoken in tongues', and so would not be in the church. Secondly, the fact that John states "...this is the message..." has little relevance to holding it to a 'pre-salvation' context, for we read in the 'post-salvation' chapters of 1 John 3:11, "...this is the message you heard from the beginning". John then goes on to describe Cain's sin, and how we are to love one another. Interestingly, this follows some of the similar themes to the supposedly 'pre-salvation' chapters as well (1 John 2:7-9).


Finally, with regard to the second point, the RCI speaker seems to have misread the context and intent of 1 John 3:2. When John says "...beloved now are we the sons of God..." he is not referring to 'now' in relation to what we were in the past (as the RCI imply to make the neat chapter division). John is making this statement of the present situation in relation to what we are going to become in the future, as the rest of the verse goes on to say "...and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is." John is looking forward, not backwards!

 

Summary


Sin is a reality in the life of a Christian, even one that speaks in tongues (at least for these two authors it is). No one should dance around it, keep it quiet, or pretend that it doesn't exist. In the church of John's day, certain people had crept into the church, and had tried to seduce it. A cornerstone of such seduction would seem to be the 'no-sin' doctrine.


We all make mistakes, we still do sin, but we may yet seek forgiveness. The principles in 1 John are part of our wonderful freedom in Christ, and for some strange reason, it is a principle that pushes Christians even further from the desire to sin. After all, as John states: "...if we confess our sins, he is faithful and just, and will forgive us our sins and purify us from all unrighteousness." (1 John 1:9)


The RCI talk that was delivered in Brisbane, and the explanation that has been referred to in the discussion of First 1 John, is not only incorrect, it is very, very dangerous, especially if worked through to its final conclusion. This ultimate conclusion would have to leave no room for a single sin. Dividing First John into 'pre' and 'post-salvation' shows a lack of understanding of the text itself, and is simply wresting the Scriptures.


It apparent that we can let our natural faith take over from the Holy Spirit faith. If someone believes they do not sin, then we are not convinced that it is the Holy Spirit giving this confirmation. This Spirit, we should remember, confirms Scripture. He does not contradict it. In the RCI if any individual is in fear of 'missing the bus' because of the realisation of sin in one's life, such a person is not left with too many options. You either get out, or deny the reality of the sin, and then confess "...I don't sin". When sin is viewed in the manner that it is by some in the RCI (and by other similar groups), it then opens the gate to a denial of 'actual sins', and a denial of the sinful nature of man. The focus then shifts to presenting the appearance of 'good', and to holding to the precepts of the Law. It is obvious to most that our sin was not 'surgically' removed at conversion. Were this so, then every Christian over the previous 2000 years would have a led a perfect life, in total obedience to Christ, the only one in whom was found no sin. Even the most optimistic in the RCI would openly acknowledge this has not been the case, even if they limited Christians to 'tongue speakers' alone. If sin was not 'cut-out', then it must yet remain, and so we need a way to deal with it. This is what John provides.


We would like to close this article with a thought from Dr Bruce Milne in his book "Know the Truth". In dealing with a similar subject he states:

"Some claim to have attained a state in which they no longer commit sin, and urge that this is possible for all Christians as they look continuously to Christ. Besides the difficulty of squaring such claims with the plain teaching of 1 John 1:8, 10, proponents of such views are found on examination to define sin in a rather limited sense: deliberate disobedience of God's will or something similar. Scripture, however, must define sin, and it is concerned about thoughts and attitudes as well as words and deeds, duties omitted as well as misdeeds committed. Sinlessness in biblical terms means to love God and every human being in every conscious moment with our whole heart, mind, will and strength, ie.complete identity of character with Jesus Christ. In fact, those who have conformed most clearly to Christ in their character exhibit a common sense of personal unworthiness and weakness (Is. 6:5f.; Dn. 9:4-19; Eph. 3:8; 1 Tim. 1:15). Not only is it unbiblical and impossible; it can induce pride and mislead and disturb the faith of others."

For John, the confession of sin was part of the daily Christian walk "...in the light". If 1 John 1 does not apply to a Christian's ongoing walk, then I think we are all in trouble.

"If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us."

 



Notes

1.

'Present, indicative, active': The 'present, indicative' aspect asserts something as being a statement of fact, particularly from the speaker's perspective. It represents something which is occurring while the speaker is making the statement. The active voice indicates that the action is being accomplished by the subject of the verb.

'Present, subjunctive, active': The 'present, subjunctive' refers to continuous or repeated action, regardless of when the action took place. The subjunctive mood suggests the action is subject to some condition. The active voice indicates that the action is being accomplished by the subject of the verb.

'First person': The 'first person' identifies the speaker, or the writer, or the group with whom that same individual associates. It is often translated, for example, as "I," or "we."

'Plural': Plural simply designates more than one of the things or persons being specified. It is the opposite of 'singular'.

Mark 16:14-20 - Is it a parable?



An examination of the Revivalist understanding

By Drew Dixon

Introduction

Mark 16:14-20 Afterward he appeared unto the eleven as they sat at meat, and upbraided them with their unbelief and hardness of heart, because they believed not them which had seen him after he was risen. And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature. He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned. And these signs shall follow them that believe; In my name shall they cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues; They shall take up serpents; and if they drink any deadly thing, it shall not hurt them; they shall lay hands on the sick, and they shall recover. So then after the Lord had spoken unto them, he was received up into heaven, and sat on the right hand of God. And they went forth, and preached every where, the Lord working with them, and confirming the word with signs following. Amen. 

 Introduction Mark 16:14-20 was for a long time in the RCI an unusual scripture. Often quoted as "believers shall speak with new tongues" it was rarely fully expounded. The piece on tongues was quoted in support of the stand that all true believers will speak in tongues. The obvious difficulty with a literal interpretation of the entire scripture is the implication that the RCI would need to apply all the other signs in the same manner to all believers i.e. casting out devils, taking up serpents, protection when drinking deadly things and laying hands on the sick and seeing them recover. Though they maintain all Christians must speak in tongues, they realised it was folly to insist all must display these other signs in a literal sense as a display of their spirituality.

Another explanation was required.

The RCI Solution

A number of years ago, Pastor Lloyd stated these verses were actually a parable, thus untangling a number of inherent problems. Their parable status is now a forgone conclusion for many. So much so, that an article supporting this theory was written in the 1999 June edition of the Voice of Revival as well as the April 1997 edition 1. In examining these articles, I will admit I had some trouble following in parts as there does seem to be a variation in explanations, so I hope I have given an accurate interpretation.

1. ..... they shall cast out devils

The spiritual meaning of this part of the parable is not clearly defined in the 1999 article. They allude to the fact that devils at the time of Christ were simply psychological / physiological conditions 2. Some oversight I know also referred to the fact that these devils in Mark 16 were false gods or false ideas. This understanding was based on Acts 17:18 where the Epicureans and Stoicks stated that Paul was a setter forth of strange god's (doctrines or false ideas). In the 1997 article, they state that Mark 16 means;

"that when people are filled with the Holy Spirit, they are no longer subject to belief in strange or false gods. These include everything that people venerate as a substitute for the God of the Bible"

2. .......They shall speak in new tongues

According to this, the real meaning of this part of the parable is that speaking in tongues is really praying in the Holy Ghost (1 Cor 14:14-15).

3. .......They shall take up serpents

The RCI meaning of serpents is that they were the Pharisees and Sadducees and the false prophets (Mat 23:27-33). The 1997 article speaks about "removing artful, malicious persons". It maintains that those who are protected by the Holy Ghost will not be subject to the deceit of those who oppose God.

4. .......If they drink any deadly thing, it shall not hurt them

The RCI version is that the true believers would not be killed (spiritually) by false doctrines. As the article states; "To drink any deadly thing is to embrace false doctrine".

The 1997 article says;

"We are all partakers of the world system surrounding us. It is a deadly system, but Gods people, who are walking in the Spirit, will be unharmed"

5. .......they (believers) shall lay hands on the sick, and they shall recover

To quote the RCI article:-

"Jesus....healed all that were sick:" and we still heal those who ask in faith. "Is any sick among you? let him call for the elders of the church; and let them pray over him, anointing him with oil in the name of the Lord:And the prayer of faith shall save the sick, and the Lord shall raise him up (James 4:15-15)."

Introduction Summary The RCI maintain these verses are part of a parable and the signs should be interpreted as such. Many reading this would be familiar with Pastor Lloyd's often quoted saying when he refers to some of the 'harder' teachings of Jesus (harder from the RCI perspective):-

"without a parable spake he not unto them (Mark 4:34)".

If the above scriptures in Mark 16 can be shown as not being a parable, then this creates problems in the linking of tongues with the other signs, and then implying that all these 'signs' must apply in every true Christian's life.

This point needs to be examined.

Notes [1] April 1997 Voice of Revival, page 8-9 "Understanding Mark 16" [2] This a point not supported at all by the Scriptures, nor with the fact that Christ addressed the demons directly. The RCI's very poor treatment of the demons topic will be addressed in another article entitled 'Devils & Demons'.

Parables Parables were generally used by Jesus to present spiritual truths in an everyday context or setting of the time. Jesus used word pictures and contemporary events or happenings that the people of his day could easily relate to (so they would hear), but the real meaning or principle behind the story was, for various reasons, often not understood by them (but they would not understand). For those who did understand, the parables also helped to explain the underlying principles, as they could understand the workings of the parable explanation and apply that to the spiritual meanings. There are many different parables that Jesus used, and while some may be a little unusual, all the stories seem to be at least plausible. This too, I think, is also an important aspect of Jesus' parables.

Matthew 13:13-15 13Therefore speak I to them in parables: because they seeing see not; and hearing they hear not, neither do they understand. 14And in them is fulfilled the prophecy of Esaias, which saith, By hearing ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see, and shall not perceive: 15For this people's heart is waxed gross, and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes they have closed; lest at any time they should see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and should understand with their heart, and should be converted, and I should heal them.

see also Mat 13:10,34,35 Mark 4:11, Luke 8:10.

Two very simple reasons why it not a parable

In the four articles that follow, I go into some depth to show that the RCI explanation of Mark 16 is incorrect. Before that, I would like to offer two very simple reasons why this is so, a sort of pre-article summary.

1. Every item listed in Mark 16 is already a supernatural occurrence. Each 'event' required the intervention of God. Quite simply, this nullifies the possibility of Mark 16 being a parable. Jesus did not use supernatural events to explain supernatural events. That is simply not how a parable works and to assume so misses the whole point and intent of Jesus teachings.

2. Marks gospel concludes with the following verse:-. 20And they went forth, and preached every where, the Lord working with them, and confirming the word with signs following. Amen.

The author of Mark sees absolutely no reason to further explain what form these signs were that followed the preaching of the Gospel. To him it would seem, they were simply the signs that had been designated in the previous verses. As Mark was written after the time of Acts and Pentecost, the author is quite comfortable in his reflection upon the events that took place and that they were simply the signs already mentioned. He did not see any need to expound upon their hidden 'spiritual fulfilment' for clarity (because there was none).

The signs he spoke of were simply the signs that took place. The Bible also confirms this. One could also point to the fact that it seems to be the Apostles and their ministry that is the focus.

Part 1- What of the literal fulfilments?

In support of their argument that Mark 16 is a parable, the RCI 1999 VOR Article begins by quoting the following verses from Matthew:-

Matthew 13:34-35

34All these things spake Jesus unto the multitude in parables; and without a parable spake he not unto them: 35That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophet, saying, I will open my mouth in parables; I will utter things which have been kept secret from the foundation of the world.

Now I may be stating the obvious, but, the literal meaning of a parable was not generally meant to be fulfilled then highlighted.

What do I mean by that?

There is no specific record of either Jesus or his disciples going out and sowing tares, growing mustard trees, sweeping for coins, or digging up pearls etc. I am sure we would all understand that the literal fulfilment of a parables was not the ultimate intent of the teaching (in reality it was not even considered in the context). If Scripture had highlighted these literal fulfilments, it would have reduced the impact of the teaching and introduced considerable confusion as to the intent of Jesus' words (the current situation being a good point in case).

The above point highlighted

The RCI begin the parable application at verse 17, but Jesus begins to talk to them in verse 15. Verse 15 & 16 should also be reconciled to the parable interpretation as well. For some reason this is often over looked:-

........And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature

In this I can see no easily understood contemporary event, hiding a deeper spiritual principle, it seems straight forward and was something the disciples literally went and did after Pentecost. They also did a bit of preaching prior to Pentecost as well. No hidden meanings here and we continue to see it in this day and age.

........He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned

In this too there is no contemporary event hiding a deeper principle. It is straight forward and was something the disciples literally went and did after Pentecost. We continue to see this today.

........In my name shall they cast out devils Both before and after Pentecost, Jesus and the disciples literally cast out devils (Acts 5:16, Acts 8:7 and the myriad of Gospel examples). They did exactly what Jesus said would happen. As explained previously, a parable is not generally something that was to attain a literal fulfilment.

The actual casting out of devils was also a significant sign, even in the establishing and spreading of the Gospel. In this it fulfilled one of its purposes as described in Mark 16:17. Though Revivalists shut their eyes to the wider reality of the Body of Christ, we still see these events in our current day and age.

.....they shall speak with new tongues

As for 'Prayer in the Spirit', the Revival fellowships have misunderstood 1 Corinthians 14:14 in relation to this (see article on Praying in the Spirit). Also, the fact remains, that on and after Pentecost, they spoke in tongues and it was still referred to in 95% of all references as 'speaking in tongues'. All through the book of Acts, from its inception, Luke sees no need to describe it in any other way (and he does not). He never calls it prayer with the spirit. 2000 years later we still use the exact same terminology.

Also, it was the literal 'speaking in tongues' (understood gentile languages), that was a definitive sign to the Jews at Pentecost (again fulfilling the sign function, see the article on Acts 2 - Pentecost) It was not the 'praying with the spirit' in 'unknown tongues' that fulfilled the sign that Mark speaks of. The speaking in unknown tongues at Corinth (where Paul talks of tongues as 'his' spirit praying), does not seem to have been a very positive sign. Indeed these unknown tongues, on their own, had the ability to turn away unbelievers (see 1 Cor 14). In Mark 16, Jesus speaks of positive, not negative signs.

......They shall take up serpents Once again, this is not an easy to understand, contemporary event of the time. People did not go round taking up serpents, without being hurt (as is the point of Jesus discourse). As it happened, Paul was literally bitten by a viper, which again, proved a significant sign to all those that witnessed the event. So much so, they thought he was a god (Acts 28:3). Eventually many were healed on Melita.

........and if they drink any deadly thing, it shall not hurt them

No record is given of someone drinking any deadly thing in the NT, so I cannot comment from that angle. It should be remembered though, that in the Apostles time, they were not blessed with healthy, non-contaminated water on tap, contaminated water was a real issue. In the Greek of this passage, the Scripture is given in the subjunctive mood, hence the word "if" is used, a 'perhaps' situation if you will. Again, it is helpful to remember the general intent and direction of a parable i.e. usually a contemporary event understood by the local people. To say that the people of Jesus' day drank deadly things and were not harmed (as would be required if the parable were to be valid) is unlikely. It is of note that I have heard Revival testimonies of people accidentally drinking toxic substances without getting sick (children especially). I see no need to dispute this and it confirms Mark 16. I am sure many Christians could testify of the same miracle. Again there is no need to spiritualise this verse and it is still quite relevant and finds fulfilment in our day and age. Further, the RCI article says that to drink any deadly thing is to embrace or preach false doctrine (without harm I assume). This seems a bit odd. Consider that Paul's letter to the Galatians was essentially about false doctrine. (see also Eph 1:14, Rom 16:17, Titus 1:9-11). Paul saw this false doctrine as a very real and present danger to his Spirit-filled brothers and sisters. He spent a great deal of time writing and explaining to them the right doctrine.

.......they shall lay hands on the sick, and they shall recover

I found the Revivalist parabolising in this instance a little confusing. Essentially, they did not do so. The VOR seems to confirm that those things which Jesus spoke of in the 'parable' did indeed take place literally afterward in the Church in like manner, for they quote the scripture in James referring to the anointing with oil and prayer for healing. I cannot easily see the significant spiritual difference in the Mark 16 'parable' and the Scripture quoted in James?

That aside, the healing of Mark 16 was no contemporary event hiding a deeper spiritual principle. Healing is a straight forward supernatural event and was something the disciples went and did both before and after Pentecost (through God, not natural abilities). In the Acts of the Apostles they literally laid hands on the sick, who were then healed (Acts 28:8). Again it also fulfilled it's sign value as spoken of in Mark.

The Church continues to see this healing sign in this day and age.

Part 1 summary

The above shows Jesus was not putting forth plausible, contemporary, understood events or principles to convey deeper spiritual meanings. Every sign spoken of in Mark 16, with the exception of the 'perhaps' clause of drinking of deadly things, was reported and saw a literal fulfilment in the Acts of the Apostles. All these signs were supernatural and provided a very powerful witness to those involved, just as Jesus designated. All these signs, while not on call, continue to see fulfilment in this day and age.